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Fannie Mae appraisal form

Does it help appraisers when agents increase the pending price in MLS?

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Does it help appraisers when agents increase the pending price in MLS for the subject property? In other words, if a house was listed at $400,000, but gets into contract at $415,000, does it help if the pending price is changed to $415,000 in MLS? This might seem like a silly topic, but I get asked this question all the time, and it seems like many believe this makes a difference for value. Here’s my opinion, and I welcome your two cents also.

Quick Answer: First off, sometimes agents think appraisers only look at the pending price, but appraisers make it a point to view the entire listing history. If you didn’t know, the Fannie Mae appraisal form actually asks appraisers to input the complete pricing history of the subject property into the appraisal. The appraisal report therefore records the original list price, any price changes, and the pending price. So it’s not like the appraiser or lender is blind to the fact the subject property was originally listed for less and is now in contract for more. In short, upping the list price for the subject property doesn’t help the appraisal come in higher or do anything for value. We have to remember the proof of value is found in the comps instead of whether the list price in MLS was increased or not for the subject property. However, on a different but related note it can be useful when appraisers are choosing comps and they see other pendings in the neighborhood getting into contract at higher levels. After all, pending sales showing higher prices might help us see the market is increasing or even help us make upward time adjustments. So while this practice of changing the list price in MLS for the subject property doesn’t do anything for value, in my mind it can be useful when looking at other pending sales in the neighborhood to see if everything is getting bid up or in contract at higher levels.

Three questions:

  1. What is the goal of this practice?
  2. If this practice is not done when the property is in contract for less, why should it be done when the property is in contract for more?
  3. If this happens in mass could it screw up data in any way?

I hope this was interesting or helpful.

Questions: What is your opinion on this practice? Is it a good idea or not? I’d love to hear your take.

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